Exam Results 2023

FYJC Mumbai 11th Standard Admission 4th Merit List 2023 | FYJC Mumbai 11th Standard Admission Allocation | FYJC Mumbai 11th Std General Round 2 Result 2023 | www.fyjc.org.in 

Staff Selection Commission Data Entry Operator Recruitment Exam Sample Questions | SSC Lower Division Clerk (LDC) Exam Questions

1. Which of the following is the winner of Miss Universe 2008
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Zhang Zilin
(C) Dayana Mendoza
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundi

2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha :
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members

3. The first General elections under the Indian constitution were held in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1953

4. The President of India is elected by :
(A) Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) by the people directly
(D) by an electrol college consisting of the elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.

5. Which article of the Indian constitution empowers the President of India to impose central rule on a state?
(A) Article 256
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 373

6. The time-gap between two sessions of parliament must not exceed :
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months

7. The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within :
(A) 6 month
(B) 9 month
(C) 12 month
(D) 3 month

8. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by :
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Gopalaswamy
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru

9. The Union Cabinet is responsible to :
(A) The Rajya Sabha only
(B) The Lok Sabha only
(C) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(D) The President of India

10. Which of the following bodies has not been provided for by the Indian constitution ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26

13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250

15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70

17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica

18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha

19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State

20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India

21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari

22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal

23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14

24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night

25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from the Poles
(D) None of the above

26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid

27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic

28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto

29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter

30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian

31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong

32. Which country is called the `Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway

33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China

34. The world’s highest waterfall, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia

35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None

36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands

37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya

38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea

39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga

40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco

41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians

42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well planned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above

43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti

44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv

45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda

46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka

47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta

48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God

49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir

50. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga

51. The Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the period of Harshavardhana was :
(A) Fa-hien
(B) Hiuen Tsang
(C) Itsing
(D) Wang-sung

52. Who among the following belonged to the moderate group of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

53. Fa-hien came to India during the reign of :
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Harsha
(D) Kanishka

54. Which of the following temples was built by the Cholas?
(A) Shore Temple, Mahabali-puram
(B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur
(C) Sun Temple, Konark
(D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

55. Which dynasty was well-known for excellent village administration?
(A) Pandyas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Cholas
(D) Chalukyas

56. The Ajanta Caves were built during the period of the :
(A) Guptas
(B) Kushanas
(C) Mauryas
(D) Chaulkyas

57. The eight-fold path was propounded by :
(A) Kabirdas
(B) Buddha
(C) Shankaracharya
(D) Mahavira

58. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Mauryas
(B) Indo-Greeks
(C) Guptas
(D) Kushanas

59. `The Vedas contain all the truth’ was interpreted by :
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Swami Dayananda
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Rai
(D) None of the above

60. Sanchi portrays the art and sculpture of the :
(A) Jains
(B) Buddhists
(C) Muslims
(D) Christians

61. Which among the following is a folk dance of India?
(A) Manipuri
(B) Garba
(C) Kathakali
(D) Mohiniattam

62. Kathak is the principal classical dance of :
(A) South India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Northern India
(D) Western India

63. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is :
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kuchipudi
(C) Odissi
(D) Bharatanatyam

64. The popular folk song of Uttar Pradesh is known as :
(A) Maang
(B) Kajari
(C) Baul
(D) Boli

65. The folk theatre of Bihar is calledÿ:
(A) Rammat
(B) Nautanki
(C) Bidesia
(D) Manch

66. Which of the following classical dance originated in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kathak
(C) Bharatanatyam
(D) Odissi

67. The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music is :
(A) Ghazal
(B) Dhrupad
(C) Thumari
(D) None of the above

68. Indian classical dance has been popularized abroad by :
(A) Malaika Arora
(B) Gopi Krishna
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) Yamini Krishnamurti

69. Tamasha is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belong to :
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

70. The Sangeet Natak Akademi fosters the development of dance, drama and music in the country. When was it established ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1953
(C) 1954
(D) 1956

71. When was the Planning Commission set up to prepare a blue print of development for the country?
(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951

72. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel

73. The National Development Council was set up in :
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1951
(D) 1962

74. The First Five-year plan covered the period :
(A) 1947-52
(B) 1950-55
(C) 1951-56
(D) 1952-57

75. Removal of poverty was the fore-most objective of which of the following five year plans?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

76. Planning Commission is :
(A) Advisory body
(B) Executive body
(C) Government body
(D) Autonomous body

77. The Community Development Programme was launched in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1956
(D) 1960

78. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan is the :
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) National Development Council

79. Which of the following commodities earn maximum foreign exchange for India?
(A) Jute
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Tea
(D) Sugar

80. The one rupee note bears the signature of :
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(B) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of these

81. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 20

82. The Reserve Bank of India was established in :
(A) 1820
(B) 1920
(C) 1935
(D) 1940

83. The first Indian Bank was :
(A) Traders Bank
(B) Imperial Bank
(C) Presidency Bank of Calcutta
(D) None

84. The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
(A) 1542
(B) 1601
(C) 1809
(D) 1677

85. The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in :
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1981
(D) 1989

86. Which of the following is not a chemical action?
(A) Burning of coal
(B) Conversion of water into steam
(C) Digestion of food
(D) Burning of Paper

87. The chemical name of vitamin C is :
(A) Citric acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Nitric acid

88. Permanent harness of water is due to the presence of :
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate

89. Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) consist of :
(A) Butane and propane
(B) Ethane and hexane
(C) Ethane and nonane
(D) None of these

90. Which of the following is present in hard water :
(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium
(D) Chlorine

91. Ecology deals with :
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment

92. Meteorology is the science of :
(A) Weather
(B) Meteors
(C) Metals
(D) Earthquakes

93. Entomology deals with :
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Insects
(D) Chemicals

94. Numismatics is the study of :
(A) Coins
(B) Numbers
(C) Stamps
(D) Space

95. When ice melts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will :
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same
(D) First increase and then decrease

96. Which of the following does not admit any division?
(A) Atom
(B) Molecules
(C) Compounds
(D) All

97. What is the approximate velocity of sound in air :
(A) 3 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 300 m/s
(D) 3000 m/s

98. Which of the following is not a primary colour :
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Black

99. Sound travels fastest through :
(A) Vacuum
(B) Steel
(C) Water
(D) Air

100. Who is the present Governor of Bihar ?
(A) R.S.Gavai
(B) R.L.Bhatia
(C) Buta Singh
(D) Syed Sibti Razi

ANSWERS

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20.(D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (B)
71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (A)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)

VTU MBA II Semester Results 2023 | VTU MBA 2nd Semester Result 2023 | Visvesvaraya Technological University MBA II Sem Results 2023 | www.vtu.ac.in 

SSC Online Application Forms 2011 | SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination Application Forms 2011 | www.ssconline.nic.in

Staff Selection Commission Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination 2011 Online Application Forms

Click Here To SSC Online Application Forms

How To Fill Up The Form
Please read these instructions, & also the detailed instructions appearing in the Notice of Examination in the Employment News, carefully before you proceed to fill up the Application Form.
Please ensure that the Application Form filled up by you is identical in format to the one appearing in the Notice of Examination in the Employment News, except when the Application Form is supplied by the Commission (as in the case of Main Examinations).
Please ensure that the paper on which your Application Form is printed/photo-copied is white in colour & of legal size (8.5″ X 14″) & at least 70 gsm in quality, to ensure that it withstands the rigours of Data Processing & subsequent handling by the Commission, except when the Application Form is supplied by the Commission (as in the case of Main Examinations).
Please read the conditions of eligibility appearing in the Notice of Examination in the Employment News to ensure that you fulfill the eligibility criteria to appear in this examination, namely age, educational qualification, physical standards etc as on the crucial date.
The Application Form may be filled up either in English or in Hindi, as you choose, while taking care that the entries are either all in English or all in Hindi. The numerals should be in Roman numeral form.
Please fill up the Application Form with a ballpoint or ink pen (using black/blue ink) in good handwriting to facilitate error-free data processing by the Commission. Any alterations must be carried out by neatly scoring the in-appropriate entry & writing the appropriate entry on the side/nearby while attesting such alterations. Please do not over-write/apply fluid/paste any paper over any in-appropriate entry.
Please do not write more than one alphabet/numeral in one box.
Please put your signatures at the places mentioned, in identical fashion so as to avoid any suspicion of impersonation.
Ordinarily any change of center of examination is not permissible. Hence choose your center of examination carefully. One envelope should contain one Application Form only.
The cover containing the Application Form should be of good quality & superscribed in bold letters as below:
Please note that the covers (containing the Application Forms) are initially sorted on the basis of the Centres superscribed on them & further processing is done by the Data Processors upto a certain stage. Hence if you do not mention the Centre clearly on your cover, the Commission may not be in a position to allot the Centre of your choice to you even though you might have mentioned the correct Center code on the Application Form.
The Commission will not be responsible for any postal delay or deficiencies. Please ensure that your Application Form reaches the Commission clearly before the last date. You may prefer to submit your Application Form in person (for which a signed receipt is given immediately), or by Speed post, or by some reputed Courier, or by Registered Post or by UPC (under certificate of posting) or by Ordinary Post. It is clarified that unless your Application Form reaches the Commission by the last date, you stand to lose your candidature. Hence in your own interest please choose a mode of transmission which in your judgement is the most effective & reliable.

Saraswat Bank Results – Recruitment of Clerks – (Marketing & Operations)

Saraswat Bank Clerk Recruitment Written Test Result 2011 | Saraswat Bank Clerk Recruitment Written Exam Selected Canidates List | www.saraswatbank.com

Saraswat Bank had released an advertisement for the recruitment of 200 vacancies of Clerks – (Marketing and Operations) in Loksatta (Mumbai) and Maharashtra Times (Mumbai) and Sakal (Pune). In response, 3287 applications were received and 2298 candidates were found eligible. The candidates were subjected to a written test on 9th May 2011. The candidates from Mumbai who stood in the Merit List from No.1 to 372 were required to go through Group Discussion / Interview. The Bank is now pleased to declare the list of 103 successful candidates finally selected for appointment as Clerks – (Marketing & Operations) in the Bank as follows:-
Click Here To Selected Candidates List

DAVV CET 2011 Second Counseling | DAVV CET 2011 2nd Counselling For MBA and M.Sc Admission | www.emrcdavv.edu.in

Notification for Second Counseling of MBA(Media Mgt.) and M.Sc. Integrated (Electronic Media) Applications are invited from the CET-2011 candidates to appear in the second counseling for admission to MBA(Media Mgt.) and M.Sc.- Integrated (Electronic Media) programs conducted at EMRC against the vacant seats. Eligible candidates may apply in prescribed format available on our website to Director, EMRC on or before (5 PM). Counseling shall be held on at EMRC, DAVV, Takshashila Campus, Khandwa Road, Indore at 11.00AM. For other details visit our web site www.dauniv.ac.in and www.emrcdavv.edu.in. No separate letter will be issued for second counseling. Director, EMRC, DAAV, Indore.

Second Counseling Process Guideline

(For MBA – Media Management & M.Sc. – Electronic Media 5 Yrs.)
1. Admission is based on CET Merit only and not transferable to any other course.
2. A Self attested photocopy of CET Marksheet to be submitted along with application.
3. Two photocopied sets of the qualifying examination marksheet (H.Sc./Graduation), Birth Certificate, Migration and Transfer Certificate with original documents is to be carried on the day of counseling for verification.
4. Income (latest), caste & domicile certificate is to be attached if applicable.
5. Bring a DD of Rs. 10,000/- at the time of counseling. For MBA (Media Management) 2 yrs. And M.Sc. (Electronic Media) 5 yrs. DD should be drawn in favor of Director, EMRC, DAVV payable at Indore. o If candidate is selected on the day of counseling, the remaining fee will be paid within two days. For fee details please refer to CET-2010 Brochure.
6. Fee for SC/ST candidates of M.P. as per M.P. Govt. rules.
7. Fee for SC/ST candidates: out side M.P. have to pay full fees.

Click Here to DAVV CET 2011 2nd Counselling More Details

KPSC Gazetted Probationers Group ‘A’ and ‘B’ services Recruitment Examination Result 2011 | Karnataka Public Service Commission Gazetted Probationers Group ‘A’ & ‘B’ Exam Result 2011

List of the candidates eligible for the Main examination for recruitment to 268 posts of Gazetted Probationers Group ‘A’ & ‘B’ services, 2011 for which the Preliminary examination was conducted by the commission is hereby published for the information of the candidates :-

Click Here To KPSC Gazetted Probationers Group ‘A’ and ‘B’ Services Exam Result 2011

Gujarat MBA, MCA (3 YEARS) and MCA (5 Years Integrated) Entrance Test Syllabus | Gujarat MBA and MCA Entrance Test Syllabus

SYLLABUS FOR MBA, MCA (3 YEARS) & MCA (5 YEARS INTEGRATED) ENTRANCE TEST

(MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQS))

The students desirous to take admission in the MBA and MCA programmes of DE will have to appear in an entrance test and clear the same with a valid score. The Entrance Test will comprise of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) from the subjects covering English, Numerical Ability, Reasoning and General Awareness. There will be 90 questions in the entrance test with no negative marks for wrong answers. The time limit for entrance test will be 90 Minutes. The purpose of this test is to judge the mental, analytical and general ability of the students for management and computer programmes. The contents of the subjects in the entrance test are as follows:

Part I:

General English: Vocabulary, Synonyms, Antonyms, Odd-Man Out, Idioms and Phrases, Spotting Errors, Word Usage, English Structure etc.

Part II:

Numerical Ability: Numbers, Percentage, L.C.M. & G.C.F., Fractions, Simplification, Square Root and Cube Root, Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Area, Time, Speed and Distance, Linear Equation and Quadratic Equation etc.

Part III: Reasoning:

Analogy Test, Coding-Decoding, Blood Relation Test, Analytical Reasoning, Classification etc.

Part IV General Awareness:

Social, Political (national and international), Cultural, Sports and other general issues etc.

Note: The Question Paper for MBA and MCA (3 Years) will be same and MCA (5 Years Integrated) will be different.

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IBM Placment Paper Sample Questions | IBM Recruitment Solved Placement Paper

IBM Recruitment Test
1. In 1978, a kg of paper was sold at Rs25/- If the paper rate increases at 1.5% more than the inflation rate which is 6.5% a year, then what will be the cost of a kg of paper after 2 years?
(a) 29.12
(b) 29.72
(c) 30.12
(d) 32.65
(e) none of these

2. In A,B,C are having some marbles with each of them. A has given B and C the same number of marbles each of them already have. Then, B gave C and A the same number of marbles they already have.Then C gave A and B the same number of marbles they already have.At the end A,B,and C have equal number of marbles.
(i) If x,y,z are the marbles initially with A,B,C respectively. Then the number of marbles B have at the end
(a) 2(x-y-z)
(b) 4(x-y-z)
(c) 2(3y-x-z)
(d) x + y-z
Ans.. (c)
(ii) If the total number of marbles are 72, then the number of marbles with A at the starting
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 32
(d) 39
Ans.. (d)

3. If a car starts from A towards B with some velocity. Due to some problem in the engine after travelling 30km, the car goes with 4/5 th of its actual velocity The car reaches B 45 min later to the actual time.If the car engine fails ofter travelling 45km, the car reaches the destination B 36min late to the actual time What is the initial velocity of car and what is the distance between A and B in km Ans.. 20 & 130.

4. A person has Rs 100/- in his pocket, he can as 25 pencils or 15 books. He kept 15% of the money for travelling expenses and purchased 5 pencils. So how many books he can purchase with the remaining money.

5. Ten questions on analogies. eg: chief : tribe :: governor : state
epaulette : shoulder :: tiara : head
guttural : throat :: gastric : stomach
inept : clever :: languid : active
knife : butcher ::
hammer : carpenter ::

6. The values of shares (in Rs).of A, B and C from January to June are as follows.

Month	A	B	C
January	30	60	80
February	35	65	85
March	45	75	65
April	40	75	82
May	55	75	85
June	50	75	80

i)During this period which share has undergone maximium fluctuation?
ii) In which month it is possible to buy B and C selling A?
iii) In which month the share values are very low?
iv)By purchasing one share of A and 4 each of B and C in the beginning of the period,when shoudl these be sold to get maximum profit?

7. In a computer institute 9 languages can be taught. The module is of 6 months duration and of the six languages only one can be taught each month . In addition to that BASIC is always taught and should be in first month itself

* WORD PERFECT is to be taught in the preceeding week of WORD STAR.
* FORTRAN can not be taught until COBAL is taught prior to that
* BINO, FIFO can never be taught in single module

Languages are BASIC, WORD STAR, WORD PERFECT, FORTRAN, COBAL, BINO, FIFO, LOTUS, C
i) If word star is in 3rd month , what could be in 6th month.
ii) If COBAL is in the 2nd month and BINO in 6th month. FORTRAN will be taught in which month.

8. In a class, except 18 all are above 50 years.15 are below 50 years of age. How many people are there
(a) 30
(b) 33
(c) 36
(d) none of these.
Ans.. (d)

9. A square plate of some size is cut at four corners. Equal squares of the same size are cut and is formed as open box.If this open box carries 128 ml of oil. What is the size of the side of the plate?
(a) 17
(b) 14
(c) 13
(d) None of these

10. In a square, all the mid points are joined. The inner square is shaded. If the area of the square is A, what is the area of the shaded area?

11. Two questions on basic angles i.e given a circle, a few chords or diameter is drawn etc.

12. If the follwoing statements are given
* @(a,b)= (a+b)/2
* /(a,b)= a/b
**(a,b)= ab If a=1, b=2 then find
i) /(a,(@(a,b),*(a,b)))
ii) */(a,@(*(a,b)))

13. If the follwoing statements are given
* (x#y) = x + y- xy
* (x*y) = (x + y)/2
i) Find the values of x, y will satisfy this equation (x#y)#(x*y) < (x#y)
ii) Find the values of x, y will satisfy this equation (a*b)#(b*c)< (a#b)*(b*c)

14. Export PS1 results in(PS1 pwd)
a) primary prompt being your current directory
b) primary prompt and secondary prompts being the current directory
c) primary prompt prompt being your home directory
d) primary prompt and secondary prompts being the home directory
e) None of the above.
15. If you type in the comman nohup sort employees > list 2 > error out & and log off ,the next time you log in, the output will be
a) in a file called list and the error will de typed in a file error out
b) there will be no file called list or error out
c) error will be logged in a file called list and o/p will be in error out
d) you will not be allowed to log in
e) none of the above

16. In UNIX a files i-node ……?
Ans.. Is a data structure that defines all specifications of a file like the file size, number of lines to a file, permissions etc.

17. The UNIX shell ….
a) does not come with the rest of the system
b) forms the interface between the user and the kernal
c) does not give any scope for programming
d) deos not allow calling one program from with in another
e) all of the above
Ans.. (b)

18. enum number { a= -1, b= 4,c,d,e} What is the value of e ? (a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 15
(e) 3

19. The very first process created by the kernal that runs till the kernal process is halts is
a) init
b) getty
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these
Ans.. (a)

20. Output of the following program is
main()
{int i=0;
for(i=0;i<20;i++)
{switch(i)
case 0:i+=5;
case 1:i+=2;
case 5:i+=5;
default i+=4;
break;}
printf("%d,",i);
}
}
a) 0,5,9,13,17
b) 5,9,13,17
c) 12,17,22
d) 16,21
e) Syntax error
Ans.. (d)

21. What is the ouptut in the following program

              main()

          {char c=-64;

           int i=-32

           unsigned int u =-16;

           if(c>i)

          {printf("pass1,");

           if(c

a) Pass1,Pass2

b) Pass1,Fail2

c) Fail1,Pass2

d) Fail1,Fail2

e) None of these

Ans.. (c)



22. In the process table entry for the kernel process, the process id value is  

(a) 0

 (b) 1

 (c) 2

(d) 255

(e) it does not have a process table entry

Ans.. (a)



23. Which of the following API is used to hide a window

a) ShowWindow

  b) EnableWindow

  c) MoveWindow

  d) SetWindowPlacement

 e) None of the above

Ans.. (a)



24. What will the following program do?

       void main()

  {

    int i;

    char a[]="String";

    char *p="New Sring";

    char *Temp;

    Temp=a;

    a=malloc(strlen(p) + 1);

   strcpy(a,p); //Line number:9//

   p = malloc(strlen(Temp) + 1);

  strcpy(p,Temp);

  printf("(%s, %s)",a,p);

  free(p);

  free(a);

 } //Line number 15//



a) Swap contents of p & a and print:(New string, string)

       b) Generate compilation error in line number 8

       c) Generate compilation error in line number 5

       d) Generate compilation error in line number 7

       e) Generate compilation error in line number 1

Ans.. (b)



25. In the following code segment what will be the result of the function,value of x , value of y

     {unsigned int x=-1;

  int y;

 y = ~0;

 if(x == y)

 printf("same");

 else

  printf("not same");

}



a) same, MAXINT, -1

b) not same, MAXINT, -MAXINT

c) same , MAXUNIT, -1

d) same, MAXUNIT, MAXUNIT

e) not same, MAXINT, MAXUNIT

Ans.. (a)



26. PATH = /bin : /usr : /yourhome The file /bin/calender has the following line in it  cal 10 1997The file/yourhome/calender has the following line in it cal 5 1997 If the current directory is /yourhome and calender is executed

a) The calendar for May 1997 will be printed on screen

    b) The calendar for Oct 1997 will be printed on screen

   c) The calendar for the current month( whatever it is) will be printed

   d) Nothing will get printed on screen

   e) An error massage will be printed



27. What will be the result of the following program ?

          char *gxxx()

    {static char xxx[1024];

     return xxx;

     }



    main()

   {char *g="string";

     strcpy(gxxx(),g);

     g = gxxx();

    strcpy(g,"oldstring");

    printf("The string is : %s",gxxx());

   }



a) The string is : string

     b) The string is :Oldstring

    c) Run time error/Core dump

    d) Syntax error during compilation

    e) None of these

Ans.. (b)



28. What will be result of the following program?

       void myalloc(char *x, int n)

   {x= (char *)malloc(n*sizeof(char));

   memset(x,\0,n*sizeof(char));

   }



    main()

   {char *g="String";

  myalloc(g,20);

  strcpy(g,"Oldstring");

 printf("The string is %s",g);

  }





a) The string is : String

 b) Run time error/Core dump

c) The string is : Oldstring

d) Syntax error during compilation

e) None of these



29. Which of the following function is used to repaint a window immediatelya) Sendmessage(hWnd,WM_PAINt,......)

   b) InvalidateRect(.......)

  c) MoveWindow

 d) WM_COPY

 e) None<  30. Which function is the entry point for a DLL in MS Windows 3.1 

a) Main

  b) Winmain

  c) Dllmain

 d) Libmain

 e) None

Ans.. (b)



31. The standard source for standard input, standard output and standard error is

a) the terminal

  b) /dev/null

  c) /usr/you/input, /usr/you/output/, /usr/you/error respectively

  d) None

Ans.. (a)



32. What will be the result of the following program?

          main()

    {char p[]="String";

       int x=0;

       if(p=="String")

       {printf("Pass 1");

        if(p[sizeof(p)-2]=='g')                                                                               

         printf("Pass 2");



     else

        printf("Fail 2");

    }

    else

 {

  printf("Fail 1");



  if(p[sizeof(p)-2]=='g')

  printf("Pass 2");

  else



  printf("Fail 2");

}

}



a) Pass 1, Pass 2

b) Fail 1, Fail 2

c) Pass 1, Fail 2

d) Fail 1, Pass 2

e) syntax error during compilation



33. Which of the choices is true for the mentioned declaration ?

const char *p;    and

 char * const p;

a) You can't change the character in both

b) First : You can't change the characterr & Second : You can;t change the pointer

c) You can't change the pointer in both

d) First : You can't change the pointer & Second : You can't chanage the character

e) None



34. The redirection operators > and >>

a) do the same function

b) differ : > overwrites, while >> appends

c) differ : > is used for input while >> is used for output

d) differ : > write to any file while >> write only to standard output

e) None of these

 Ans.. (b)



35. The command grep first second third /usr/you/myfile

a) prints lines containing the words first, second or third from the file /usr/you/myfile

  b) searches for lines containing the pattern first in the files

       second, third, and /usr/you/myfile and prints them

  c) searches the files /usr/you/myfiel and third for lines containing the words first or second and printsthem

  d) replaces the word first with the word second in the files third and /usr/you/myfile

  e) None of the above

Ans.. (b)



Aptitude

part 1 : letter series.

part 2 : figures

part 3 : quantities



Technical

Most question are on Unix and some in C and some in

windows 3.1all question in Unix are From Kernighan & pike

    Part 1

It consists of number series.In some institutes alphabetical series is  given instead of number series.Iam having number series so iam sending that.Please go through tha alphabetical tests also.

1.    19,24,20,25,21,26,? Ans.:22

2.    11,14,12,15,13,16,? Ans.: 14

3.    10,2,8,2,6,2,? a:4

4.    8,9,11,14,,18,23,? a:29

5.    25,25,22,22,19,19,? a:16

6.    14,2,12,4,10,6,? a:8

7.    7,16,9,15,11,14,? a:13

8.    40,42,39,44,38,46,? a:37

9.    3,18,4,24,5,30,? a:6

10.  18,20,22,20,28,20,? a:22

11. 18,20,10,12,4,6? a:0

12.  7,6,8,5,3,7,? a:4

13   9,18,21,25,20,? a:30

14   3,3,4,8,10,36,? a:33

15.  30,28,25,20,34,28,? a:21

16.  4,8,16,32,64,128,? a:256

17.  8,16,24,32,40,48,? a:56

18.  13,11,14,12,15,13,? a:16

19.  6,18,36,108,216,648,? a:1296

20.  4,4,8,8,16,16,? a:32

21.  2,6,18,54,162,486,? a:1458

22.  4,20,35,49,62,74,? a:85

23.  10,18,15,23,20,28,? a:25

24.  4,10,8,14,12,18,? a:16

25  10,15,12,17,14,10,? a:16



part 2 consists of non-verbal reasoning (figures). So it is impossible for  me to send those.(25 questions)

   Part 3 (quantitative)

  1.  A clerk multiplied a number by ten when it should have been divided by  ten.The Ans. he got was 100.whatshould the Ans. have been?



a:1

   2.  If Rs20/- is available to pay for typing a research report & typist A  produces 42 pages and typist B produces28  pages.How much should typist A  receive?



 a:Rs12/-


  3.   The average salary of 3 workers is 95 Rs. per week. If one earns  Rs.115 and second earns Rs.65 how  much is the salary of the 3rd worker.



 Ans..105.

   4.  A 16 stored building has 12000 sq.feet on each floor. Company A rents 7  floors and company B rents 4floors.What is the number of sq.feet of  unrented floor space.



 Ans..60000


  5.  During a given week A programer spends 1/4 of his time preparing flow  chart, 3/8 of his time coding andthe rest of the time in debugging the  programs. If he works 48 hours during the week , how many hours did hespend debugging the program.



 Ans.. 18.


  6.  A company installed 36 machines at the beginning of the year. In March they installed 9 additional machines  and then disconnected 18 in August.  How many were still installed at the end of the year



.  Ans.. 27


  7.  A man owns 2/3 of the market research beauro business and sells 3/4 of  his shares for Rs. 75000. What is thevalue of Business.



 Ans..150000



  8.  If 12 file cabinets require 18 feet of wall space, how many feet of  wall space will 30 cabinets require? Ans..45\



  9.  A computer printer produced 176,400 lines in a given day. If the  printer was in operation for seven hours  during the day, how many lines  did it print per minute?

Ans..420



10.   From its total income, A sales company spent Rs.20,000 for advertising, half of the remainder on commissions  and had Rs.6000 left.What was its total income

? Ans..32000



11.  On Monday a banker processed a batch of cheques, on Tuesday she processed three times as many, and on  Wednesday she processed 4000 cheques. In the three days, she processed 16000 cheques. How many did she process on Tuesday?

Ans..9000



12.  The cost of four dozen proof machine ribbons and five dozen accouting  machine ribbons was Rs.160/-. If one  dozen accounting machine ribbons cost Rs.20/-, what is the cost of a dozen proof machine ribbons?  Ans..Rs.15



13.  If a clerk can process 80 cheques in half an hour, how many cheques  can she process in a seven and one half  hour day?

 Ans..1200



14.  In a library, there are two racks with 40 books per rack. On a given  dya, 30 books were issued. Whatfraction remained in the racks?

Ans..5/8



15. The average length of three tapes is 6800 feet. None of the tapes is less than 6400 feet. What is the greatest  possible length of one of the other tapes?

Ans..7600



16. A company rented a machine for Rs.700/- a month. Five years later  the treasurer calculated that if the companyhad purchased the machine and paid Rs.100/- monthly maintenance charge, the company would have savedRs.2000/-. What was the purchase price of the machine?

Ans..Rs.34000



17. Two computers each produced 48000 public utility bills in a day. One computer printed bills at the rate of 9600an hour and the other at the rate of 7800 an hour. When the first computer finished its run, how many  bills didthe other computer still have to print?

Ans..9000



18. If a salesman's average is a new order every other week, he will break the office record of the year. However, after 28 weeks, he is six orders behind schedule. In what proportion of the remaining weeks does he have to     obtain a new order to break the record? Ans..3/4



19. On a given day, a bank had 16000 cheques returned by customers.Inspection of the first 800 cheques indicated that 100 of those 800 had errors and were therefore the available immediately for data processing. On this basis, hwo many cheques would be available immediately for data  processing on that day?

Ans..14000



20. A company figured it needed 37.8 sq.feet of carpot for its reception  room. To allow for waste, it decided toorder 20% more material than  needed. Fractional parts of sq.feet cannot be ordered. At Rs.9/- asq.feet, how much would the carpet cost?

Ans.. a. Rs.324 b) Rs.405 c) Rs.410 d) Rs.414 e) Rs.685



21.A tape manufacturer reduces the price of his heavy duty tape from Rs.30/- to Rs.28/- a reel and the price of a regular tape from Rs.24/- to  Rs.23/- a reel. A computing centre normally spends Rs.1440/- a month for tapes and 3/4 of this is for heavy duty tapes. How much will they save a  month under the new prices?

Ans..Rs.87



22. In a team of 12 persons, 1/3 are women and 2/3 are men. To obtain a team with 20% women how many menshould be hired?

Ans..8   



23. The dimensions of a certain machine are 48" X 30" X 52". If the size  of the machine is increasedproportionately until the sum of its dimensions equals 156", what will be the increase in the shortest side?

 Ans.. 6"



24. In a certain company, 20% of the men and 40% of the women attended  the annual company picnic. If 35% of  all the employees are man, what  percent of all the employees went to the picnic?

Ans..33%



25. It cost a college Rs.0.70 a copy to produce a Programme for the  homecoming football game. If Rs.15,000/- was received for advertisements in the programme, how many copies at Rs.0.50 a copy must be sold to make a profit of Rs.8000/- ?

Ans.. 35000



Aptitude



1.  Speed of boat in still water is 10kmph..if it travels 24km downstream,16km upstream in the sameamount of time,what is the speed of the stream?

(a)3kmph      (b)3.5kmph      (c)2kmph      (d)...



2.  A cube of 3 units is painted on all sides.If this cube is divided into cubes of 1 unit,how many cubehave none of their faces painted?

(a)...         (b)2         (c)1                          (d)0         (e)none of these



3.  If a person sells a product for rs141/- he suffers a loss of 6%.if he has to have a profit of 10%, at what price should he sell it?

(a)            (b)rs.175            (c)..            (d)rs.165

Ans..rs.165 (i think,check)



4.  A ball falls from a height of 8ft ,bounces back to half the distance & continues till it comes to rest.  what is the total distance travelled by the ball?

a)24ft       (b)...       (c)infinite      (d)cannot be determined

Ans.:(a)



5.   Which of the following is the sum of 3 consecutive prime nos?         (a)49         (b)59         (c)both a &b         (d)....         Ans.:c



6.  If the area of a square has increased by 69%,by what % has its side increased?



7.  In a class the average age is 16yrs.if the teacher who is 40 yrs of age is also included ,the average becomes 7yrs,how many students were there?



8.  If 3 houses are to be painted,mr A can paint a house in 6 days(nos are not same)...mr B can do the same in 8  days...& mr.C in 12 days.if mr A does the work for 8 days & leaves for vacation, & mr B continues the work for the next 6 days, for how many days should mr.C work?

Ans.:11 days(check)



9. 4 thieves rob a bakery of the breadone after the other.each thief takes half of what is present ,& half  abread...if  at  the end 3 bread remains,what is the no of bread that was present initiallly?

Ans.:63(check)



10. If the 1rst day of 1999 is a sunday,what is the last day?      (a)sunday     (b)monday              (c)....    (d)cannot be determined.



11.  If A driver drives a car four times a lap 10,20 30,60 kmph what  is his average speed.Ans.:20kmph In a group there are two kinds of people type A & type B.type A people Ans.wer for any question as YES &that of type B as NO.if they can not Ans.wer to these question then they remain silent. the mayor asks question to them as follows........



12.  If he asks a person are u type Aa.YES b.NO c. Silent d.Can not be determined



13.  He asks two persons X &Ysimultaneously whether u of same type  a. YES b. NO c.YES or NO d. Silent e. can not be determined



14.  Pointing to a person X he asks Y what is his typea. YES b. No c. Silent d can not be determined



15. Pointing to a person X he asks Y if I ask him whether r u  type A ,will he Ans.wer YES.Y says NO .what typeof  B isa. YES b. NO . c. Silent d. can not be determined



16. Six squares of same dimension are kept side by side to make a rectangle with a perimeter of  182 cm. what isthe perimeter of each square.Ans.) 52.



17. One student takes 20 mins to reach school if he goes at a speed of 15kmph .At what  speed should he go to      reach in 15 mins ( nos are not same) Ans.: 16kmph( check)



18. How many rational numbers are there between 0 & 5

Ans.:infinite



19. A certain number of bullets were shared by 3 people equally.Each of them fired 4 bullets and the sum of the remaining bullets was equal to the initial share each had got.what was the initial  number of bullets?Ans.:18..( 18/3=6;6-4=2,6-4=2,6-4=2; 2+2+2=6=Ans.)


Technical:



20. A trigger is  (a) a statement ..start of database..  (b)statements that r executed as a side effect to the modification to the database  (c)...   (d)...   Ans. (b)



21. What does the following statement mean?  int (*a)[4]  (a)'a' is a pointer to an array of 4 integers  (b)'a' is an array of pointers to integer   (c)'a' is a pointer to function returning an integer   (d)...    Ans.:a



22.  Best method to find out whether a given array already sorted,is sorted or not in min. time

Ans.. insertion sort (check)



23. A primary key in one table also present in some other table is called

(a)foreign key

(b)secondary key

(c)subordinate key

(d)...

Ans.. foreign key



24. Which of the following is a real time system?  (a)robotics control  (b)airline ticket reservation(Ans.)   (c)  (d)...



25.  A question to convert a big no in decimal to octal(check only for the last 2 nos in Ans. is sufficient)



26.  Which of the following is an example of a spooling device?    (a)..    (b)line printer..    (c)    (d)    (e)...



27.  If in a table:account no,account holders name,account type ,.....(something else was given)are the fields,which   of  them could be the primary key?     (a)account no(Ans.)     (b)account holders name     (c)account type     (d)..



28.  If a file is opened in "r+" mode(in C),it meAns.(a) write  (b)read  (c)...  (d).....



29.  What is the difference between 123 and 0123 in c?   (a)120   (b)40   (c)0   (d)...    Ans.:40



30.  Software Configuration Management process is -    (a)developing & managing software for .....software....   (b)developing & managing hardware for....software.......                                              (c)...    (d)..



31.  Data Integrity constraint is   (a)to ensure the presence of primary key   (b)...   (c)...   (d)...



32. Which of the following uses the minimum length of cable?  (a)ring  (b)star  (c)mesh  (d)bus  (e)all of the above



31. How can u append the ls and who to certain existing file (like  that)(i.e.listing & output of who is to be directedto a file  (a)ls;who>filename  (b)ls;who>>filename   (c)(ls;who)>>filename   (d)who;ls



34. Suppose u have a network .users complain of slow ....u suspect a problem in network adapter once u find that the data is continuous and erroneous.what device do u use?  (a)volt-ohmmeter  (b)SNMP  (c)protocol... checking  (d)all of the above



35. What is vector processing?



36. x-=y+1 is equivalent to what?                                                                                   (a)x=x-y+1

(b)...(c)x=x-y-1(d)...

Ans.:(c)



37. In a student form what is the relationship b/w student and course   (a)one to one   (b)many to one   (c)one to many   (d)many to many



38.  ROM is(a)volatile(b)permanent & fast(c)device containig boot up program & is not accessible  (d)... I have given 38 questions out of 40 q's ...hope it will be useful 2 all of u... they didnt select any ec people 4interview..:( only CS,IS..& 2 from TE. that's all from my side.. here are some hr questions as sent by jagannatha  (CS-PESIT)



HR questions:



1. why 2+2 is 4 why not 5.

Ans.: assume u took 2 apples from A and 2 more apples from B and assume u are having 5 and give 2 to X and give 2 more to Y then nothing will be with u i.e u lossed. (give some Ans.wers but dont say that it is like that only )



2.how may stones did hanuman thowned on lanka? ( diffirent but of same type) and one more how many trees are there in u'r campus

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RAJASTHAN PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION, AJMER SYLLABUS FOR EXAMINATION FOR THE POST OF TEACHER, GRADE-II (SANSKRIT) SANSKRIT EDUCATION DEPARTMENT

(I) General knowledge and Current affairs with special reference to Rajasthan:

Current affairs of Rajasthan, Major current issues and happenings at state level related to Political, Socio economic, Games and Sports aspects.

Indian Constitution – salient features. Indian Political System – Union Executive – President : Powers and Functions. Prime Minister & Council of Ministers-Powers and Functions..

Office of Governor, Chief Minister and Cabinet Role and functions of state Secretariat, role of Chief Secretary, Local Government in Rajasthan – Rural and urban, Major institutions and their role in various developmental programmes – Women empowerment through local Governance.

(II) Geographical, Historical and Cultural Knowledge of Rajasthan - Location, Extention, relief features, climate, drainage, soil resource, Vegetation, Irrigation, Multipurpose Projects, Agriculture, Live Stock, Dairy Development, Minerals – Power resource, Population distribution and growth, Literacy, Sex-ratio, Religious Composition, Industries, Major Tourists Centres and Means of Transportation of Rajasthan.

Main centres of Uprising and Protest in Rajasthan in 1857.

Freedom movement in Rajasthan and freedom fighters of Rajasthan, Integration of Rajasthan – various stages. People, Religion and culture of Rajasthan – Saints of Rajasthan, Lok Devta and Deviyan, various temples.

Important fairs and festivals, Folk songs and dances, Historical Palaces and Forts, Major Centres of Sufism in Rajasthan – Ajmer, Sarwar and Nagaur.

(III) Educational Psychology :

1 Educational Psychology - meaning, scope and contribution of educational psychology in field of Education.
2 Learning - Its Meaning, Factors affecting Learning, Different Theories of Learning and its implications for a teacher.
3 Development of Learner - Physical, Emotional and Social development of child and their implications for Learning.
4 Individual differences and Education for Special Children.
5 Motivation - Meaning and role in the process of learning.

RPSC, rpsc grade II syllabus, rpsc grade II teachers science papers, rpsc grade II teachers science patten, rpsc grade II teachers recruitment science syllabus, rpsc teachers grade II science syllabus

RAJASTHAN PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION, AJMER SYLLABUS FOR EXAMINATION FOR THE POST OF TEACHER, GRADE-II (SCIENCE) SANSKRIT EDUCATION DEPARTMENT

(I) General knowledge and Current affairs with special reference to Rajasthan:

Current affairs of Rajasthan, Major current issues and happenings at state level related to Political, Socio economic, Games and Sports aspects.

Indian Constitution – salient features. Indian Political System – Union Executive – President : Powers and Functions. Prime Minister & Council of Ministers-Powers and Functions..

Office of Governor, Chief Minister and Cabinet Role and functions of state Secretariat, role of Chief Secretary, Local Government in Rajasthan – Rural and urban, Major institutions and their role in various developmental programmes – Women empowerment through local Governance.

(II) Geographical, Historical and Cultural Knowledge of Rajasthan - Location, Extention, relief features, climate, drainage, soil resource, Vegetation, Irrigaton, Multipurpose Projects, Agriculture, Live Stock, Dairy Development, Minerals – Power resource, Population distribution and growth, Literacy, Sex-ratio, Religious Composition, Industries, Major Tourists Centres and Means of Transportation of Rajasthan.

Main centres of Uprising and Protest in Rajasthan in 1857.

Freedom movement in Rajasthan and freedom fighters of Rajasthan, Integration of Rajasthan – various stages. People, Religion and culture of Rajasthan – Saints of Rajasthan, Lok Devta and Deviyan, various temples.

Important fairs and festivals, Folk songs and dances, Historical Palaces and Forts, Major Centres of Sufism in Rajasthan – Ajmer, Sarwar and Nagaur.

(III) Educational Psychology :

1 Educational Psychology - meaning, scope and contribution of educational psychology in field of Education.
2 Learning - Its Meaning, Factors affecting Learning, Different Theories of Learning and its implications for a teacher.
3 Development of Learner - Physical, Emotional and Social development of child and their implications for Learning.
4 Individual differences and Education for Special Children.
5 Motivation – Meaning and role in the process of learning.

(IV) School Subject (Science)

Physics :

1 Mechanics – I – Physical world and measurement, Description of motion, Vectors, Laws of motion, Friction, Work, Energy and power, Rotational motion.
2 Mechanics – II – Periodic motion, S.H.M. its equation, K.E. and P.E., concept of free, forced and damped oscillations. simple pendulum, oscillation of a loaded spring, Universal law of gravitation, g, variation of g, orbital and escape velocity, planetary motion, Kepler’s law, Hook’s law, young’s modulus, bulk modulus and shear modulus of rigidity. P.E. in a stretched wire, Type of waves, wave equation, superposition principle, Interference, beats,
stationary waves, resonance tube, sonometer. Melde’s experiment, Doppler’s effect in sound and light.
3 Heat, thermodynamics and Radiation - Concept of Heat and temperature, Temp. Scales, Thermal expansion of solid, liquid and gases, specific heat, Law of mixture, latent heat, Thermal capacity, Zeroth & first law of thermodynamics, Modes of transmission of heat, thermal conductivity, Thermal radiations, perfect blackbody, Wein’s displacement law, Stefen’s law, Kirchoff’s law, Newton’s law of cooling, Electric power, Joule’s law, Chemical effect of current, Faraday’s law of electrolysis, Thermoconductivity, Seeback effect, Peltier and Thomson effect.
4 Optics - Laws of reflection, Reflection by plane and curved mirrors, Laws of refraction, total internal refraction – applications, Diffraction, Lenses, Image formation by lenses, Sattering of light, Eye, Defects of vision, Microscopes, Astronomical telescopes, Huygen’s principle – reflection and refraction, Interference of light, young’s double slit experiment, Frenel’s Bi-prism, Diffraction of light, Frenel’s HPZ, Fraunhoffer’s diffraction, polarisation of light, law of malus, Nicol prism, poloroids.
5 Electrostatics - Coulomb’s law, electric field and potential due to a point charge, Dipole, concept of Dielectic, Gauss theorem – its applications, Electric lines of force, Force and torque experience by a dipole in uniform electric field, Capacity of a isolated spherical conductor, capacitor – principle, Types of Capacitors, series and parallel combinations of Capacitors, Energy of a Capacitor.
6 Magnetism Natural and man made magnet, magnetic lines of force, Coulomb’s law, magnetic moment, Torque on a magnetic dipole, magnetic field, magnetic induction, magnetic intensity, permeability, susceptibility & Intensity of magnetisation – their relations. Curie Law, Hysterisis, B-H curve. Classification of magnetic materials. Oersted’s experiment, Biot – Savarts law, magnetic field by a straight Conductor & Circular Current Carrying Coil, Ampere’s Circuital law, Solenoid, Toroid, Cyclotron, Moving Coil, Galvanometer, Ammeter, Voltmeter and Tangent Galvanometer, Faraday’s Law, Lenz’s Law, Self Induction, Mutual Induction, Electric Generators, Motor, Transformers.
7 Electricity – Ohm’s Law, Temperature dependence of resistance, colour code of resistors, series and parallel combination of resistors, resistivity, primary and secondary cells and their combination in series and parallel, Kirchoff’s laws, wheat stone bridge and potentiometer – their applications, Mean and rms value of A.C., A.C. Circuit Containing resistence, Inductance and Capacitance, Series resonant Circuit, Q factor, Average power in A.C., Wattless Current, Choke Coil.
8 Atomic, Nuclear Physics and Radioactivity - Einstein’s Photoelectric equation, Photocell, matter waves, Debroglie’s hypothesis, Nucleus, Mass defect, Binding energy, Nuclear reactions, Nuclear fission and fusion, Nuclear reactor, Radioactivity, laws of distengraton, α,β and γ rays, radioactive isotopes – uses, Radio Carbon dating.
9 Electromagnetic Waves and Communication - Electromagnetic Waves- Properties, Electromagnetic spectrum, propagation of radio waves, Satellite Communication.
10 Solids and semi conductor devices – Energy bond in solids, Semi conductor, P-N Junction, Diodes, Diode as an rectifier, Junction transistor.

Chemistry :

1 Atomic Structure : Fundamental Particles, Atomic models and their limitations, dual nature of particles, de-broglie equation, uncertainity principle, Modern concept of atomic structure, quantum numbers, Aufbau principle, Pauli’s exclusion principle, Hund’s rule, (n+l) rule. Electronic configuration of elements. Molecular orbital theory for simple homo-nuclear diatomic molecules. Mole concept, Chemical stoichiometry.
2 States of matter : Gaseous state – gas laws, ideal gas equation, Dalton’s law of partial pressure, kinetic theory of gases, deviation from ideal behaviour, critical temperature and its importance, liquification of gases. Liquid state – properties of liquid, vapoure pressure, surface tension and viscocity cofficient and its application. Solid state – classification of solids, crystal structure, Crystal defects.
3 Ionic bond, covalent bond, coordinate bond. General properties of ionic and covalent bond. Geometry of molecules, Valence shell electrons pair repulsion theory, Fajan’s Rule, Valence bond theory, concept of resonance, directional properties of bond, hybridisation.
4 Co-ordination Compounds : Ligand and co-ordination number, IUPAC nomenclature and formulation of mono nuclear co-ordination compound, Isomerism, Stereoisomerism, Crystal field theory. Shapes, Colours, Magnetic properties in complexes, stability of co-ordination compounds, Organometallic compound (elementary knowledge)
5 Classification of elements and periodicity in properties : Modern concept of periodic table, types of elements – s, p, d and f block periodicity in properties-atomic and ionic radii, ionisation potential, electron affinity, electronegativity and valency.
6 Chemical Equilibria : Law of mass action and its application to homogeneous equilibria, Le-chatelier principle and its application to physical and chemical system. Factors affecting chemical equilibria.
7 Ionic Equilibria : Ionic equilibria in solutions, Acid-base concept, pH scale, Buffer solution. Dissociation of acid and base, Common ion effect and its importance. Solubility product and its uses.
8 Oxidation – Reduction reaction : Redox reactions, Oxidation numbers.
9 Metals, Non-metals and Metallurgy : Minerals and ores, General metallurgy, Metallurgy of Cu, Al and Zn. Use of important compounds of metals and non-metals in daily life.
Non-metals and their compounds – Carbon, Nitrogen, Sulphur, Oxygen, Phosphorous, halogens, Allotropes of C,S and P and their uses. Cement and Plaster of Paris.
10 Purification & characterisation of organic compounds – Different methods of purification, ualitative & quantitative analysis, Tetravalency of carbon, overlapping of orbitals, sigma and pi-bond, shape of methane, ethane and ethyne molecules, effect of hybridisation on bond length and bond energy, functional groups, homologous series, classification of organic compounds, Nomenclature of organic compounds, Isomerism.
11 Hydrocarbons : Aliphatic hydrocarbons (Alkane, Alkene and Alkyne); Aromatic hydrocarbon (Benzene), concept of aromaticity, petroleum and petrochemicals.
12 Polymers, Bio-molecules, Chemistry in everyday life.
13 Environmental Chemistry – Atmosphere, air and water pollution.
14 Zero group elements : Position in periodic table, isolation, compounds of zero group elements.
15 d-block elements : Electronic configuration, general characteristics for e.g. colour, oxidation state, tendency to form complexes, magnetic properties, catalytic properties, alloys.
16 f-block elements : Lanthanides and Actinides, Electronic configuration, Lanthanide contraction and its consequences, Super heavy elements.
17 Bio-Inorganic Chemistry : Role of bulk and trace metal ions in biological system with special reference to Mg, Ca, Fe, Cu, Na and K.
18 Reaction Mechanism : Inductive, Mesomeric and Hyper – conjugation. Addition and substitution : Electrophyls and Nucleophyls. Electrophilic addition and substitution reaction, Nucleophilic substitution reactions (SN1 and SN2), Elimination reactions.
19 Chemical Kinetics : Order and Molecularity of reactions, first and second order reactions and their rate expressions (no derivation), Zero and Pseudo order reactions, Collision theory and activated complex theory.
20 Solutions : Osmotic pressure, Lowering of vapour pressure, depression of freezing point and elevation of boiling point. Dilute Solutions, Determination of molecular weight in solution. Association and dissociation of solutes.
21 Electrochemistry : Electrochemical cells, electrode potentials, measurement of e.m.f. Conductance : Cell constant, specific and equivalent conductivity, Kohlrausch’s Law and its applications, solubility and solubility product, equivalent conductivity at infinite dilution of weak electrolytes, hydrolysis and hydrolysis constant, Dry betteries.

Biology :

1. Cell structure and functions of cell organelles, Cell inclusions, Nucleic acid (DNA and RNA) Cell division (Mitosis,Meiosis), Genetic code, types of RNA and protein synthesis, Duplication of DNA , Watson Crick model , B-DNA , Z-DNA
2. Types of plant tissues, internal structure of root, stem and leaves, Secondary growth, Anomalous secondary growth, Annual rings, heartwood and sap wood, tyloses
3. Structure of flower, Types of inflorescence, reproduction in plants, Double fertilisation, types of embryosacs polyembryony, Apomixis, Parthenocarpy Alternation of generation, Economic botany: Timber plants, Medicinal plants Fibre yielding plants, Condiments and spices
4. Water relations, Osmosis, DPD, Plasmolysis, Water potential Absorption of water, Ascent of sap, Transpiration, Guttation, Stomatal movement, Antitranspirants
5. Photosynthesis, types of pigments, light and dark reaction, C4 cycle, Organisation of Photosystems, Red drop phenomenon, Chemosynthesis, Bacterial photosynthesis
Law of limiting factor, factors affecting photosynthesis, Crassulacean Acid Metabolism
6. Respiration, types of respiration, Glycolysis, Krebs cycle and Oxidative phosphorylation, Respiratory quotient (R..Q.), Photorespiration, Electron transport system
7. Enzymes, classification, mechanism of action, factors affecting enzyme activities, Isoenzymes, Regulation of enzyme activity
8. Regulation in animals (Nervous system, Endocrine system), regulation in plants by hormones Auxin, Gibberellins, Cytokinins, Ethylene, Abscisic acid, application of plant hormones in agriculture and horticulture, Photoperiodism, Vernalisation and seed dormancy, Avena culture test, Bioassay of hormones, Richmond -Lang effect, Plant movements.
9. Ecology Types of pollution, Global warming, Green house effect, Acid rains, ozone depletion Biodiversity, Sancturies, National parks, Endangered species, Deforestation, Biotic communities, Ecosystem, Food chains, ecological pyramids, wild life and its conservation, Biogeochemical cycles, Radiation hazards.
10. Structure and function of animal tissues, Various systems of human
11. Life cycle of Plasmodium, Ascaris, Liverfluke, Economic importance of Protozoa and Insects. Social insects. External and internal structure of Amoeba, Earthworm Cockroach and Frog ,
12. Heredity and Evolution, Darwinism, Neo Darwinisim, Lamarckism, Natural selection and Adaptation, Concepts of species and speciation. Palentological evidences and morphological evidences of evolution,Hardy-Winberg law, Origin of life
13. Genetics and genetic engineering : Mendelism, Linkage, Crossing over, hybridization, sex determination and sex linked inheritance, Blood groups, Rh factor, Mutation, gene mapping and human genome project ,Genetic engineering, clones, techniques of gene transfer, applications of biotechnology, Totipotency Tissue culture and its applications, transgenic animals, Linkage and crossing over, One gene one enzyme hypothesis , Operon model of gene. Polyploidy.
14. Taxonomy of animals, Five kingdom system,Characteristics upto family level with suitable example. Symmetry , Coelom , segmentation and embryogenesis.
15. Taxonomy of plants: Eukaryota, Prokaryota, Virus, Mycoplasma, Lichens and elementary knowledge of Ulothrix, Riccia and Pteridium, Selaginella, Pinus, Cycas and Ephedra. Economic importance of Gymnosperms.
16. Embryology of animals, Spermatogenesis, Oogenesis, fertilization, Cleavage, Gastrulation, organogenesis and fate of three germinal layers, test tube baby. Embryology of frog

(V) Educational Methodology (Science) :

1 Definition and concept of science, place of science in school curriculum, nature of science, scientific attitude, values of science, correlation of science with other school subjects, aims of science teaching in Secondary Schools, Scientific literacy, Scientific method, Teachers’ beliefs, Constructivism in science.
2 Principles of developing science curriculum at secondary level, factors affecting the selection and organisation of science curriculum, NPE-1986, POA (1992) and National curriculum frame work – 2005, Unit plan and lesson plan, Taxonomy of educational objectives, writing objectives in behavioural terms. Role of Science teacher.
3 Methods and approaches – Lecture method, demonstration, laboratory method, problem solving, project method, inductive and deductive method, inquiry approach, discovery method, programmed instruction, panel discussion, team teaching, multi sensory teaching aids.
4. Co-curricular activities, Science lab, planning and equipping science lab, Safety precaution for work in science lab, science-club, field trip, I.T. interventions in science teaching.
5. Evaluation – Concepts, type and purposes, type of post items, objective type, S.A. and Essay, preparation of blue print, evaluation of practical work in science, comprehensive and continuous evaluation in science.
Scheme and syllabus of competitive examination for the post of Teacher Grade II (Science)
1 The competitive examination shall carry 200 marks.
2 Duration of examination shall be two hours.
3 The question paper of written examination shall carry multiple choice type questions.
4 Paper shall include following subjects carrying the number of marks as shown against them :-
(i) General Knowledge and Current Affairs with special reference toRajasthan. 60 Marks
(ii) Geographical, Historical & Culture Knowledge of Rajasthan. 60 Marks
(iii) Educational Psychology 10 Marks
(iv) School Subject (Science) 40 Marks
Note : Standard of contents of School subject shall be of the praveshika standard.
(v) Educational Methodology (Science) 30 Marks

Total 200 Marks

The Andhra Pradesh Central Power Distribution Company Ltd. (APCPDCL) has been announced the Recruitment Results 2011 for the Post of Assistant Engineer ( ELECTRICAL ) & Junior Accounts Officer (AE/JAO).

APCPDCL Written Examination for Recruitment of AE/JAO and date of interview has final for selected candidates for AE & for JAO.

APCPDCL Recruitment Results 2011 is available on the official website (http://www.apcentralpower.com) of APCPDCL. Candidates can be download the results by visit link has given below.

APCPDCL Recruitment Results 2011

Maharashtra University of Health Sciences (MUHS) Nashik has been announced the MBBS Results 2011.

MUHS MBBS Examination was held in May/June 2011. MUHS MBBS Result has been published on the official website (http://www.muhsnashik.com) of MUHS Nashik.

College Wise Result is also available on the same. Students can be download the results by visit link has given below.

MUHS MBBS Results for Examination May/June 2011

College Wise MUHS MBBS Results for Examination May/June 2011

For more information regarding MUHS and MUHS Results click here

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Karnataka Diploma CET (Common Entrance Test) Results 2011 has been announced.

Diploma CET is a Entrance Examination, which is conducted for admission in Undergraduate Courses in Colleges/Universities under Karnataka State.

Diploma CET Results 2011 will be Published on the official website (http://karresults.nic.in) Karnataka Results. Students can check the Results by visit link has given below.

Karnataka Diploma CET Results 2011

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Tamilnadu Directorate of Examination Board SSLC (10th Class) Supplementary Results 2011 or 10th Re-Exam Results 2011 has been announced. Tamilnadu Directorate of Examination Board is conducted by Government of Tamilnadu.

Tamilnadu 10th Results has been published on the official website (http://tnresults.nic.in). Students can be check it by visit link has given below.

10th Re-Exam Results 2011 in Tamilnadu

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IPCC Results May 2011 has been announced by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI).

IPCC (Integrated Professional Competence /Accounting Technician) Results for Examination May 2011 will be Published.

The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is a statutory body established under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 (Act No. XXXVIII of 1949) for the regulation of the profession of Chartered Accountants in India. During its 61 years of existence, ICAI has achieved recognition as a premier accounting body not only in the country but also globally, for its contribution in the fields of education, professional development, maintenance of high accounting, auditing and ethical standards.

ICAI now is the second largest accounting body in the whole world.


IPCC Results May 2011 will be available on the official website (http://icai.org) of Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI). Candidates can get the ICAI Results 2011 by visit link has given below.

IPCC Results May 2011

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The Institute of Cost & Works Accountants of India (ICWAI) has been announced the Foundation Results June 2011.


ICWAI has opened up further scope and tremendous opportunities Cost and Works accountants to shoulder responsibility as Cost and Management Accountants in accordance with new dimensions and vision here in India and abroad.

ICWAI professionals would ethically drive enterprises globally by creating value to stakeholders in the socio-economic context through competencies drawn from the integration of strategy, management and accounting. ICWAI Foundation Results June 2011 is available on the official website (http://www.icwai.org) of ICWAI.

ICWAI Foundation Results June 2011
Online ICWAI Foundation Results June 2011

For more details regarding ICWAI and ICWAI Results click here

The Cochin University of Science and Technology (CUSAT) has been announced the CUSAT Results 2011 B.Tech 3rd Semester Examination.

CUSAT B.Tech 3rd Semester Examination was held in November 2010 and the last dates for Scrutiny and Revaluation are respectively.

CUSAT Results 2011 is available on the official website (http://cusat.ac.in) of CUSAT. Students can get the Results by visit link has given below.

CUSAT Results

CUSAT B.Tech 6th Sem Results 2011

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MP Board 12th Result for Supplementary Examination has been announced by Board of Secondary Education, Madhya Pradesh.

MP Board Higher Secondary School Certificate Examination (HSSC) or 12th Class (Plus Two) Supplementary Result July 2011 is available

on the main official website (http://mpbse.nic.in) of MP Board. Students can get the result by visit link has given below.

MP Board 12th Results for Supplementary Results 2011

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Mysore University Results 2011 has been announced for B.Sc/M.T.A/B.T.H/B.P.Ed/B.Com.


The UG & PG Results 2011 has been published for examinations conducted during June / July 2011.


Mysore University Results 2011 is available on the official website (http://www.uni-mysore.ac.in) of University of Mysore. Students can be download the results by visit link has given below.

Mysore University Results 2011

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PSST 2011 Results has been announced by University of Rajasthan, Jaipur. Pre Shiksha Shashtri Test PSST is conducted by University of Rajasthan, Jaipur. PSST Results 2011 has been published on the official website (http://www.psst2011.com) of PSST2011. Candidates can by download the results by visit link has given below.

PSST 2011 Results

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