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FYJC Mumbai 11th Standard Admission 4th Merit List 2023 | FYJC Mumbai 11th Standard Admission Allocation | FYJC Mumbai 11th Std General Round 2 Result
Wednesday, 24 August 2011
05:31
FYJC Mumbai 11th Standard Admission 4th Merit List 2023 | FYJC Mumbai 11th Standard Admission Allocation | FYJC Mumbai 11th Std General Round 2 Result 2023 | www.fyjc.org.in
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FYJC 11th Standard Admission 2023 Allocation/Result For Merit List – 4 (General Round – 2)
Alloted applicants are requested to secure their admission before august 2011 1 pm otherwise they will be out of general stream admission process.
FYJC Allocation/Result For Merit List – 4 (General Round – 2)
This Trial Application Form has been made available in printed form to the students passing out the SSC examination at their respective schools. This form can also be downloaded by using the link given below.
Candidates are requested to use this Trail Application Form to prepare all the data required to be entered in the Online Application Form. They should start filling in the Online Application Form only after completely filling in the Trail Application Form by hand preferably using pencil.
Staff Selection Commission Data Entry Operator Recruitment Exam Sample Questions | SSC Lower Division Clerk (LDC) Exam Questions
04:53
Staff Selection Commission Data Entry Operator Recruitment Exam Sample Questions | SSC Lower Division Clerk (LDC) Exam Questions
1. Which of the following is the winner of Miss Universe 2008
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Zhang Zilin
(C) Dayana Mendoza
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundi
2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha :
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members
3. The first General elections under the Indian constitution were held in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1953
4. The President of India is elected by :
(A) Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) by the people directly
(D) by an electrol college consisting of the elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.
5. Which article of the Indian constitution empowers the President of India to impose central rule on a state?
(A) Article 256
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 373
6. The time-gap between two sessions of parliament must not exceed :
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months
7. The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within :
(A) 6 month
(B) 9 month
(C) 12 month
(D) 3 month
8. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by :
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Gopalaswamy
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
9. The Union Cabinet is responsible to :
(A) The Rajya Sabha only
(B) The Lok Sabha only
(C) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(D) The President of India
10. Which of the following bodies has not been provided for by the Indian constitution ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission
11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26
13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250
15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70
17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica
18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha
19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State
20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India
21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari
22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal
23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14
24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night
25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from the Poles
(D) None of the above
26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid
27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic
28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto
29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter
30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian
31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong
32. Which country is called the `Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway
33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China
34. The world’s highest waterfall, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia
35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None
36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands
37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya
38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea
39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga
40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco
41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians
42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well planned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above
43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti
44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv
45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka
47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta
48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God
49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir
50. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga
51. The Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the period of Harshavardhana was :
(A) Fa-hien
(B) Hiuen Tsang
(C) Itsing
(D) Wang-sung
52. Who among the following belonged to the moderate group of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
53. Fa-hien came to India during the reign of :
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Harsha
(D) Kanishka
54. Which of the following temples was built by the Cholas?
(A) Shore Temple, Mahabali-puram
(B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur
(C) Sun Temple, Konark
(D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
55. Which dynasty was well-known for excellent village administration?
(A) Pandyas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Cholas
(D) Chalukyas
56. The Ajanta Caves were built during the period of the :
(A) Guptas
(B) Kushanas
(C) Mauryas
(D) Chaulkyas
57. The eight-fold path was propounded by :
(A) Kabirdas
(B) Buddha
(C) Shankaracharya
(D) Mahavira
58. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Mauryas
(B) Indo-Greeks
(C) Guptas
(D) Kushanas
59. `The Vedas contain all the truth’ was interpreted by :
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Swami Dayananda
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Rai
(D) None of the above
60. Sanchi portrays the art and sculpture of the :
(A) Jains
(B) Buddhists
(C) Muslims
(D) Christians
61. Which among the following is a folk dance of India?
(A) Manipuri
(B) Garba
(C) Kathakali
(D) Mohiniattam
62. Kathak is the principal classical dance of :
(A) South India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Northern India
(D) Western India
63. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is :
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kuchipudi
(C) Odissi
(D) Bharatanatyam
64. The popular folk song of Uttar Pradesh is known as :
(A) Maang
(B) Kajari
(C) Baul
(D) Boli
65. The folk theatre of Bihar is calledÿ:
(A) Rammat
(B) Nautanki
(C) Bidesia
(D) Manch
66. Which of the following classical dance originated in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kathak
(C) Bharatanatyam
(D) Odissi
67. The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music is :
(A) Ghazal
(B) Dhrupad
(C) Thumari
(D) None of the above
68. Indian classical dance has been popularized abroad by :
(A) Malaika Arora
(B) Gopi Krishna
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) Yamini Krishnamurti
69. Tamasha is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belong to :
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar
70. The Sangeet Natak Akademi fosters the development of dance, drama and music in the country. When was it established ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1953
(C) 1954
(D) 1956
71. When was the Planning Commission set up to prepare a blue print of development for the country?
(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951
72. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel
73. The National Development Council was set up in :
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1951
(D) 1962
74. The First Five-year plan covered the period :
(A) 1947-52
(B) 1950-55
(C) 1951-56
(D) 1952-57
75. Removal of poverty was the fore-most objective of which of the following five year plans?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth
76. Planning Commission is :
(A) Advisory body
(B) Executive body
(C) Government body
(D) Autonomous body
77. The Community Development Programme was launched in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1956
(D) 1960
78. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan is the :
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) National Development Council
79. Which of the following commodities earn maximum foreign exchange for India?
(A) Jute
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Tea
(D) Sugar
80. The one rupee note bears the signature of :
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(B) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of these
81. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 20
82. The Reserve Bank of India was established in :
(A) 1820
(B) 1920
(C) 1935
(D) 1940
83. The first Indian Bank was :
(A) Traders Bank
(B) Imperial Bank
(C) Presidency Bank of Calcutta
(D) None
84. The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
(A) 1542
(B) 1601
(C) 1809
(D) 1677
85. The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in :
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1981
(D) 1989
86. Which of the following is not a chemical action?
(A) Burning of coal
(B) Conversion of water into steam
(C) Digestion of food
(D) Burning of Paper
87. The chemical name of vitamin C is :
(A) Citric acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Nitric acid
88. Permanent harness of water is due to the presence of :
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate
89. Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) consist of :
(A) Butane and propane
(B) Ethane and hexane
(C) Ethane and nonane
(D) None of these
90. Which of the following is present in hard water :
(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium
(D) Chlorine
91. Ecology deals with :
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment
92. Meteorology is the science of :
(A) Weather
(B) Meteors
(C) Metals
(D) Earthquakes
93. Entomology deals with :
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Insects
(D) Chemicals
94. Numismatics is the study of :
(A) Coins
(B) Numbers
(C) Stamps
(D) Space
95. When ice melts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will :
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same
(D) First increase and then decrease
96. Which of the following does not admit any division?
(A) Atom
(B) Molecules
(C) Compounds
(D) All
97. What is the approximate velocity of sound in air :
(A) 3 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 300 m/s
(D) 3000 m/s
98. Which of the following is not a primary colour :
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Black
99. Sound travels fastest through :
(A) Vacuum
(B) Steel
(C) Water
(D) Air
100. Who is the present Governor of Bihar ?
(A) R.S.Gavai
(B) R.L.Bhatia
(C) Buta Singh
(D) Syed Sibti Razi
ANSWERS
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20.(D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (B)
71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (A)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)
Read full here
1. Which of the following is the winner of Miss Universe 2008
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Zhang Zilin
(C) Dayana Mendoza
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundi
2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha :
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members
3. The first General elections under the Indian constitution were held in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1953
4. The President of India is elected by :
(A) Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) by the people directly
(D) by an electrol college consisting of the elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.
5. Which article of the Indian constitution empowers the President of India to impose central rule on a state?
(A) Article 256
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 373
6. The time-gap between two sessions of parliament must not exceed :
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months
7. The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within :
(A) 6 month
(B) 9 month
(C) 12 month
(D) 3 month
8. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by :
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Gopalaswamy
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
9. The Union Cabinet is responsible to :
(A) The Rajya Sabha only
(B) The Lok Sabha only
(C) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(D) The President of India
10. Which of the following bodies has not been provided for by the Indian constitution ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission
11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26
13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250
15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70
17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica
18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha
19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State
20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India
21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari
22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal
23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14
24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night
25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from the Poles
(D) None of the above
26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid
27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic
28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto
29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter
30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian
31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong
32. Which country is called the `Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway
33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China
34. The world’s highest waterfall, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia
35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None
36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands
37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya
38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea
39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga
40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco
41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians
42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well planned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above
43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti
44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv
45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka
47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta
48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God
49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir
50. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga
51. The Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the period of Harshavardhana was :
(A) Fa-hien
(B) Hiuen Tsang
(C) Itsing
(D) Wang-sung
52. Who among the following belonged to the moderate group of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
53. Fa-hien came to India during the reign of :
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Harsha
(D) Kanishka
54. Which of the following temples was built by the Cholas?
(A) Shore Temple, Mahabali-puram
(B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur
(C) Sun Temple, Konark
(D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
55. Which dynasty was well-known for excellent village administration?
(A) Pandyas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Cholas
(D) Chalukyas
56. The Ajanta Caves were built during the period of the :
(A) Guptas
(B) Kushanas
(C) Mauryas
(D) Chaulkyas
57. The eight-fold path was propounded by :
(A) Kabirdas
(B) Buddha
(C) Shankaracharya
(D) Mahavira
58. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Mauryas
(B) Indo-Greeks
(C) Guptas
(D) Kushanas
59. `The Vedas contain all the truth’ was interpreted by :
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Swami Dayananda
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Rai
(D) None of the above
60. Sanchi portrays the art and sculpture of the :
(A) Jains
(B) Buddhists
(C) Muslims
(D) Christians
61. Which among the following is a folk dance of India?
(A) Manipuri
(B) Garba
(C) Kathakali
(D) Mohiniattam
62. Kathak is the principal classical dance of :
(A) South India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Northern India
(D) Western India
63. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is :
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kuchipudi
(C) Odissi
(D) Bharatanatyam
64. The popular folk song of Uttar Pradesh is known as :
(A) Maang
(B) Kajari
(C) Baul
(D) Boli
65. The folk theatre of Bihar is calledÿ:
(A) Rammat
(B) Nautanki
(C) Bidesia
(D) Manch
66. Which of the following classical dance originated in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kathak
(C) Bharatanatyam
(D) Odissi
67. The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music is :
(A) Ghazal
(B) Dhrupad
(C) Thumari
(D) None of the above
68. Indian classical dance has been popularized abroad by :
(A) Malaika Arora
(B) Gopi Krishna
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) Yamini Krishnamurti
69. Tamasha is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belong to :
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar
70. The Sangeet Natak Akademi fosters the development of dance, drama and music in the country. When was it established ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1953
(C) 1954
(D) 1956
71. When was the Planning Commission set up to prepare a blue print of development for the country?
(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951
72. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel
73. The National Development Council was set up in :
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1951
(D) 1962
74. The First Five-year plan covered the period :
(A) 1947-52
(B) 1950-55
(C) 1951-56
(D) 1952-57
75. Removal of poverty was the fore-most objective of which of the following five year plans?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth
76. Planning Commission is :
(A) Advisory body
(B) Executive body
(C) Government body
(D) Autonomous body
77. The Community Development Programme was launched in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1956
(D) 1960
78. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan is the :
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) National Development Council
79. Which of the following commodities earn maximum foreign exchange for India?
(A) Jute
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Tea
(D) Sugar
80. The one rupee note bears the signature of :
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(B) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of these
81. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 20
82. The Reserve Bank of India was established in :
(A) 1820
(B) 1920
(C) 1935
(D) 1940
83. The first Indian Bank was :
(A) Traders Bank
(B) Imperial Bank
(C) Presidency Bank of Calcutta
(D) None
84. The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
(A) 1542
(B) 1601
(C) 1809
(D) 1677
85. The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in :
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1981
(D) 1989
86. Which of the following is not a chemical action?
(A) Burning of coal
(B) Conversion of water into steam
(C) Digestion of food
(D) Burning of Paper
87. The chemical name of vitamin C is :
(A) Citric acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Nitric acid
88. Permanent harness of water is due to the presence of :
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate
89. Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) consist of :
(A) Butane and propane
(B) Ethane and hexane
(C) Ethane and nonane
(D) None of these
90. Which of the following is present in hard water :
(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium
(D) Chlorine
91. Ecology deals with :
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment
92. Meteorology is the science of :
(A) Weather
(B) Meteors
(C) Metals
(D) Earthquakes
93. Entomology deals with :
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Insects
(D) Chemicals
94. Numismatics is the study of :
(A) Coins
(B) Numbers
(C) Stamps
(D) Space
95. When ice melts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will :
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same
(D) First increase and then decrease
96. Which of the following does not admit any division?
(A) Atom
(B) Molecules
(C) Compounds
(D) All
97. What is the approximate velocity of sound in air :
(A) 3 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 300 m/s
(D) 3000 m/s
98. Which of the following is not a primary colour :
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Black
99. Sound travels fastest through :
(A) Vacuum
(B) Steel
(C) Water
(D) Air
100. Who is the present Governor of Bihar ?
(A) R.S.Gavai
(B) R.L.Bhatia
(C) Buta Singh
(D) Syed Sibti Razi
ANSWERS
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20.(D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (B)
71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (A)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)
VTU MBA II Semester Results 2023 | VTU MBA 2nd Semester Result 2023 | Visvesvaraya Technological University MBA II Sem Results 2023 | www.vtu.ac.in
04:46
VTU MBA II Semester Results 2023 | VTU MBA 2nd Semester Result 2023 | Visvesvaraya Technological University MBA II Sem Results 2023 | www.vtu.ac.in
Read full here
Visvesvaraya Technological University (VTU) Published MBA II Semester Examination Result 2023. Last date for Applying to Challenge Valuation for MBA I,II & III Semester is AUGUST 2023 Click Here To VTU MBA II Semester Result 2023 VTU is one of the biggest Technological University in India, having 159 colleges affiliated to it with Under Graduate course in 27 disciplines and Post Graduate Programmes in 67 disciplines. The intake of UG level is about 45000 students and about 7500 at the PG level. The University has 14 QIP Centres in various affiliated colleges and 14 Extension Centres offering PG Programmes.
There are over 200 department across the affiliated colleges recognized as Research Centres. At present over 1000 students / faculty have registered for Ph.D. degree and over 180 students have registered for M.Sc.(Engg. by Research). For the academic year 2007-08, the University has awarded Ph.D. degree to about 35 candidates and (M.Sc.(Engg.) degree to about 13 candidates. The University has MBA and M.Tech. Programmes at “Jnana Sangama”, Belgaum with more than 250 students.
SSC Online Application Forms 2011 | SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination Application Forms 2011 | www.ssconline.nic.in
Saturday, 20 August 2011
05:14
SSC Online Application Forms 2011 | SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination Application Forms 2011 | www.ssconline.nic.in
Staff Selection Commission Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination 2011 Online Application Forms
Click Here To SSC Online Application Forms
How To Fill Up The Form
Please read these instructions, & also the detailed instructions appearing in the Notice of Examination in the Employment News, carefully before you proceed to fill up the Application Form.
Please ensure that the Application Form filled up by you is identical in format to the one appearing in the Notice of Examination in the Employment News, except when the Application Form is supplied by the Commission (as in the case of Main Examinations).
Please ensure that the paper on which your Application Form is printed/photo-copied is white in colour & of legal size (8.5″ X 14″) & at least 70 gsm in quality, to ensure that it withstands the rigours of Data Processing & subsequent handling by the Commission, except when the Application Form is supplied by the Commission (as in the case of Main Examinations).
Please read the conditions of eligibility appearing in the Notice of Examination in the Employment News to ensure that you fulfill the eligibility criteria to appear in this examination, namely age, educational qualification, physical standards etc as on the crucial date.
The Application Form may be filled up either in English or in Hindi, as you choose, while taking care that the entries are either all in English or all in Hindi. The numerals should be in Roman numeral form.
Please fill up the Application Form with a ballpoint or ink pen (using black/blue ink) in good handwriting to facilitate error-free data processing by the Commission. Any alterations must be carried out by neatly scoring the in-appropriate entry & writing the appropriate entry on the side/nearby while attesting such alterations. Please do not over-write/apply fluid/paste any paper over any in-appropriate entry.
Please do not write more than one alphabet/numeral in one box.
Please put your signatures at the places mentioned, in identical fashion so as to avoid any suspicion of impersonation.
Ordinarily any change of center of examination is not permissible. Hence choose your center of examination carefully. One envelope should contain one Application Form only.
The cover containing the Application Form should be of good quality & superscribed in bold letters as below:
Please note that the covers (containing the Application Forms) are initially sorted on the basis of the Centres superscribed on them & further processing is done by the Data Processors upto a certain stage. Hence if you do not mention the Centre clearly on your cover, the Commission may not be in a position to allot the Centre of your choice to you even though you might have mentioned the correct Center code on the Application Form.
The Commission will not be responsible for any postal delay or deficiencies. Please ensure that your Application Form reaches the Commission clearly before the last date. You may prefer to submit your Application Form in person (for which a signed receipt is given immediately), or by Speed post, or by some reputed Courier, or by Registered Post or by UPC (under certificate of posting) or by Ordinary Post. It is clarified that unless your Application Form reaches the Commission by the last date, you stand to lose your candidature. Hence in your own interest please choose a mode of transmission which in your judgement is the most effective & reliable.
Read full here
Staff Selection Commission Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination 2011 Online Application Forms
Click Here To SSC Online Application Forms
How To Fill Up The Form
Please read these instructions, & also the detailed instructions appearing in the Notice of Examination in the Employment News, carefully before you proceed to fill up the Application Form.
Please ensure that the Application Form filled up by you is identical in format to the one appearing in the Notice of Examination in the Employment News, except when the Application Form is supplied by the Commission (as in the case of Main Examinations).
Please ensure that the paper on which your Application Form is printed/photo-copied is white in colour & of legal size (8.5″ X 14″) & at least 70 gsm in quality, to ensure that it withstands the rigours of Data Processing & subsequent handling by the Commission, except when the Application Form is supplied by the Commission (as in the case of Main Examinations).
Please read the conditions of eligibility appearing in the Notice of Examination in the Employment News to ensure that you fulfill the eligibility criteria to appear in this examination, namely age, educational qualification, physical standards etc as on the crucial date.
The Application Form may be filled up either in English or in Hindi, as you choose, while taking care that the entries are either all in English or all in Hindi. The numerals should be in Roman numeral form.
Please fill up the Application Form with a ballpoint or ink pen (using black/blue ink) in good handwriting to facilitate error-free data processing by the Commission. Any alterations must be carried out by neatly scoring the in-appropriate entry & writing the appropriate entry on the side/nearby while attesting such alterations. Please do not over-write/apply fluid/paste any paper over any in-appropriate entry.
Please do not write more than one alphabet/numeral in one box.
Please put your signatures at the places mentioned, in identical fashion so as to avoid any suspicion of impersonation.
Ordinarily any change of center of examination is not permissible. Hence choose your center of examination carefully. One envelope should contain one Application Form only.
The cover containing the Application Form should be of good quality & superscribed in bold letters as below:
Please note that the covers (containing the Application Forms) are initially sorted on the basis of the Centres superscribed on them & further processing is done by the Data Processors upto a certain stage. Hence if you do not mention the Centre clearly on your cover, the Commission may not be in a position to allot the Centre of your choice to you even though you might have mentioned the correct Center code on the Application Form.
The Commission will not be responsible for any postal delay or deficiencies. Please ensure that your Application Form reaches the Commission clearly before the last date. You may prefer to submit your Application Form in person (for which a signed receipt is given immediately), or by Speed post, or by some reputed Courier, or by Registered Post or by UPC (under certificate of posting) or by Ordinary Post. It is clarified that unless your Application Form reaches the Commission by the last date, you stand to lose your candidature. Hence in your own interest please choose a mode of transmission which in your judgement is the most effective & reliable.
Saraswat Bank Clerk Recruitment Written Test Result 2011 | Saraswat Bank Clerk Recruitment Written Exam Selected Canidates List | www.saraswatbank.com
05:09
Saraswat Bank Results – Recruitment of Clerks – (Marketing & Operations)
Saraswat Bank Clerk Recruitment Written Test Result 2011 | Saraswat Bank Clerk Recruitment Written Exam Selected Canidates List | www.saraswatbank.com
Saraswat Bank had released an advertisement for the recruitment of 200 vacancies of Clerks – (Marketing and Operations) in Loksatta (Mumbai) and Maharashtra Times (Mumbai) and Sakal (Pune). In response, 3287 applications were received and 2298 candidates were found eligible. The candidates were subjected to a written test on 9th May 2011. The candidates from Mumbai who stood in the Merit List from No.1 to 372 were required to go through Group Discussion / Interview. The Bank is now pleased to declare the list of 103 successful candidates finally selected for appointment as Clerks – (Marketing & Operations) in the Bank as follows:-
Click Here To Selected Candidates List
Read full here
Saraswat Bank Clerk Recruitment Written Test Result 2011 | Saraswat Bank Clerk Recruitment Written Exam Selected Canidates List | www.saraswatbank.com
Saraswat Bank had released an advertisement for the recruitment of 200 vacancies of Clerks – (Marketing and Operations) in Loksatta (Mumbai) and Maharashtra Times (Mumbai) and Sakal (Pune). In response, 3287 applications were received and 2298 candidates were found eligible. The candidates were subjected to a written test on 9th May 2011. The candidates from Mumbai who stood in the Merit List from No.1 to 372 were required to go through Group Discussion / Interview. The Bank is now pleased to declare the list of 103 successful candidates finally selected for appointment as Clerks – (Marketing & Operations) in the Bank as follows:-
Click Here To Selected Candidates List
DAVV CET 2011 Second Counseling | DAVV CET 2011 2nd Counselling For MBA and M.Sc Admission | www.emrcdavv.edu.in
04:35
DAVV CET 2011 Second Counseling | DAVV CET 2011 2nd Counselling For MBA and M.Sc Admission | www.emrcdavv.edu.in
Notification for Second Counseling of MBA(Media Mgt.) and M.Sc. Integrated (Electronic Media) Applications are invited from the CET-2011 candidates to appear in the second counseling for admission to MBA(Media Mgt.) and M.Sc.- Integrated (Electronic Media) programs conducted at EMRC against the vacant seats. Eligible candidates may apply in prescribed format available on our website to Director, EMRC on or before (5 PM). Counseling shall be held on at EMRC, DAVV, Takshashila Campus, Khandwa Road, Indore at 11.00AM. For other details visit our web site www.dauniv.ac.in and www.emrcdavv.edu.in. No separate letter will be issued for second counseling. Director, EMRC, DAAV, Indore.
Second Counseling Process Guideline
(For MBA – Media Management & M.Sc. – Electronic Media 5 Yrs.)
1. Admission is based on CET Merit only and not transferable to any other course.
2. A Self attested photocopy of CET Marksheet to be submitted along with application.
3. Two photocopied sets of the qualifying examination marksheet (H.Sc./Graduation), Birth Certificate, Migration and Transfer Certificate with original documents is to be carried on the day of counseling for verification.
4. Income (latest), caste & domicile certificate is to be attached if applicable.
5. Bring a DD of Rs. 10,000/- at the time of counseling. For MBA (Media Management) 2 yrs. And M.Sc. (Electronic Media) 5 yrs. DD should be drawn in favor of Director, EMRC, DAVV payable at Indore. o If candidate is selected on the day of counseling, the remaining fee will be paid within two days. For fee details please refer to CET-2010 Brochure.
6. Fee for SC/ST candidates of M.P. as per M.P. Govt. rules.
7. Fee for SC/ST candidates: out side M.P. have to pay full fees.
Click Here to DAVV CET 2011 2nd Counselling More Details
Read full here
Notification for Second Counseling of MBA(Media Mgt.) and M.Sc. Integrated (Electronic Media) Applications are invited from the CET-2011 candidates to appear in the second counseling for admission to MBA(Media Mgt.) and M.Sc.- Integrated (Electronic Media) programs conducted at EMRC against the vacant seats. Eligible candidates may apply in prescribed format available on our website to Director, EMRC on or before (5 PM). Counseling shall be held on at EMRC, DAVV, Takshashila Campus, Khandwa Road, Indore at 11.00AM. For other details visit our web site www.dauniv.ac.in and www.emrcdavv.edu.in. No separate letter will be issued for second counseling. Director, EMRC, DAAV, Indore.
Second Counseling Process Guideline
(For MBA – Media Management & M.Sc. – Electronic Media 5 Yrs.)
1. Admission is based on CET Merit only and not transferable to any other course.
2. A Self attested photocopy of CET Marksheet to be submitted along with application.
3. Two photocopied sets of the qualifying examination marksheet (H.Sc./Graduation), Birth Certificate, Migration and Transfer Certificate with original documents is to be carried on the day of counseling for verification.
4. Income (latest), caste & domicile certificate is to be attached if applicable.
5. Bring a DD of Rs. 10,000/- at the time of counseling. For MBA (Media Management) 2 yrs. And M.Sc. (Electronic Media) 5 yrs. DD should be drawn in favor of Director, EMRC, DAVV payable at Indore. o If candidate is selected on the day of counseling, the remaining fee will be paid within two days. For fee details please refer to CET-2010 Brochure.
6. Fee for SC/ST candidates of M.P. as per M.P. Govt. rules.
7. Fee for SC/ST candidates: out side M.P. have to pay full fees.
Click Here to DAVV CET 2011 2nd Counselling More Details
KPSC Gazetted Probationers Group ‘A’ and ‘B’ services Recruitment Examination Result 2011 | Karnataka Public Service Commission Gazetted Probationers
Tuesday, 16 August 2011
07:20
KPSC Gazetted Probationers Group ‘A’ and ‘B’ services Recruitment Examination Result 2011 | Karnataka Public Service Commission Gazetted Probationers Group ‘A’ & ‘B’ Exam Result 2011
List of the candidates eligible for the Main examination for recruitment to 268 posts of Gazetted Probationers Group ‘A’ & ‘B’ services, 2011 for which the Preliminary examination was conducted by the commission is hereby published for the information of the candidates :-
Click Here To KPSC Gazetted Probationers Group ‘A’ and ‘B’ Services Exam Result 2011
Read full here
List of the candidates eligible for the Main examination for recruitment to 268 posts of Gazetted Probationers Group ‘A’ & ‘B’ services, 2011 for which the Preliminary examination was conducted by the commission is hereby published for the information of the candidates :-
Click Here To KPSC Gazetted Probationers Group ‘A’ and ‘B’ Services Exam Result 2011
